Timeline India

Category: National

  • PM Modi Launches GST 2.0 Reforms as ‘Bachat Utsav’ for Middle-Class and Poor, Effective September 22

    New Delhi, September 21, 2025 – Prime Minister Narendra Modi, in a televised address on the eve of Navaratri, announced a major revamp of India’s indirect tax system with the introduction of GST 2.0, dubbing it a “Bachat Utsav” — a nationwide festival of savings — to alleviate household expenses and stimulate economic growth. The reforms, approved by the GST Council earlier this month, will take effect from September 22, aligning with the start of Navaratri.

    Modi emphasized that the changes will lower the cost of living for the poor and middle class while making India more attractive to investors and entrepreneurs by streamlining the tax framework. “From tomorrow, the nation will celebrate GST Bachat Utsav. Your savings will increase, and you will be able to buy your favourite things. This reform will benefit every section of society,” the Prime Minister stated.

    Key Features of GST 2.0
    The new two-tier GST rate system includes:

    • 99% of goods previously taxed at 12% now at 5%.
    • 90% of items in the 28% slab shifted to 18%.
    • A 40% compensation cess retained on luxury and sin goods like tobacco, high-end vehicles, and aerated drinks.

    Modi reflected on the pre-2014 tax regime as a “web of taxes and tolls” that burdened businesses and consumers, with cascading costs ultimately affecting the common people. “It was essential to free the nation from this maze,” he added. He described GST 2.0 as a “double bonanza” for households — reducing prices on essentials and boosting savings — while fostering state uniformity and collaborative development.

  • U.S. Revokes Visas for Indian Executives and Families Involved in Fentanyl Precursor Trafficking

    New Delhi, September 18, 2025 – In a major crackdown on synthetic narcotics trafficking, the U.S. Embassy in New Delhi has revoked and denied visas for several Indian business executives and corporate leaders implicated in the illegal trade of fentanyl precursors. This action, part of the Trump Administration’s broader strategy to protect Americans from dangerous drugs, also extends to their close family members, rendering them ineligible for U.S. travel.

    The decisions were made under sections 221(i), 212(a)(2)(C), and 214(b) of the Immigration and Nationality Act. The Embassy is additionally flagging executives linked to companies known for trafficking fentanyl precursors for enhanced scrutiny on future visa applications.

    Chargé d’affaires Jorgan Andrews emphasized the U.S. commitment, stating, “The U.S. Embassy in New Delhi remains steadfast in its commitment to combating illicit drug trafficking. Individuals and organizations involved in the illegal production and trafficking of drugs to the United States, along with their families, will face consequences that may include being denied access to the United States.”

    Curbing the influx of fentanyl and its precursors is a top priority for the U.S., with gratitude expressed to Indian counterparts for their collaboration in tackling this transnational threat. The Trump Administration has issued Executive Orders to secure borders, dismantle drug cartels, and urge reforms in source countries.

    “Together, we will build a safer, healthier, stronger future for America and India,” the release concluded.

  • Delhi Court Quashes Ex-Parte Gag Order Restraining Four Journalists From Reporting on Adani Group

    New Delhi, September 18, 2025 – The Rohini District Court has quashed an ex-parte interim injunction issued on September 6 by a lower court, which had restrained journalists from publishing allegedly defamatory content about the Adani Group. District Judge Ashish Aggarwal allowed an appeal filed by four journalists—Ravi Nair, Abir Dasgupta, Ayaskant Das, and Ayush Joshi—ruling that the original order was unsustainable due to the lack of a hearing opportunity for the defendants.

    Judge Aggarwal observed that the articles and posts in question had been in the public domain for a substantial period, and the civil judge should have granted the journalists a chance to be heard before directing their removal. “While articles and posts spanning a substantial period were questioned by the plaintiff through the suit, the court didn’t deem it fit to grant opportunity of hearing to defendants before passing the impugned order,” the judge stated. He emphasized that without a hearing, declaring the content defamatory and ordering takedowns was premature, and restoration of removed material would be infeasible if later found non-defamatory.

    The judge set aside the order without commenting on the merits of the case, noting that the trial court should decide after affording the defendants a hearing. Notably, another judge in the same court has reserved judgment on journalist Paranjoy Guha Thakurta’s similar appeal against the gag order.

    Advocate Vrinda Grover, representing the four journalists, argued that most impugned publications dated back to June 2024, with no emergent circumstances justifying the “extraordinary and exceptional relief” of an ex-parte injunction months later. “Why the rush? Why no notice could have been given to us for two days? Majority of publications are from June 2024 onwards. How have they explained the delay is their burden,” Grover contended. She criticized the lack of reasoning for deeming the articles unverified or defamatory, citing examples based on official Kenyan government statements and Swiss judgments.

    Grover further described the order as a “blanket John Doe” injunction, leading to the removal of hundreds of videos and posts, including satirical content. “Is there any law in this country which can ask anyone, particularly the press, that you won’t write or question any entity? That is not what the law allows. Tsunami orders of takedown already happened… Would the heavens have fallen if notice had been given to me?” she submitted, underscoring the impact on freedom of speech and expression.

    In response to Adani Enterprises’ counsel Vijay Aggarwal’s justification of the urgency—citing a recent August podcast share and ongoing “republications” via likes and retweets—the court orally queried, “Can you tell me what was the hurry that the order had to be passed?” Aggarwal argued it was a strategic campaign by the journalists, who are under NIA probe for alleged Chinese funding, and that ex-parte orders are legally recognized under Order 39 Rule 4 of the CPC. He noted the Supreme Court’s clearance of Adani in the Hindenburg report context and claimed the articles lacked details on favoritism allegations.

    Grover also challenged Adani Enterprises’ locus standi, pointing out that Gautam Adani himself was not a party to the suit, questioning the company’s right to sue on his behalf.

    The journalists were represented by advocates Vrinda Grover and Nakul Gandhi.

  • Rahul Gandhi accuses Gyanesh Kumar of shielding ‘vote chori’ in Karnataka

    New Delhi, September 18, 2025: Congress leader Rahul Gandhi has accused Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) Gyanesh Kumar of protecting those weakening Indian democracy. Speaking at a press conference at Indira Bhawan on Thursday.

    Referring to Karnataka’s Aland Assembly constituency, Gandhi alleged an attempt to delete 6,018 voter names, stating, “This is not mere speculation; there is solid evidence.” He explained that a booth-level officer grew suspicious when her uncle’s vote was deleted, and upon investigation, the irregularity was uncovered. “The exact number of votes deleted in Aland is not yet clear, but an attempt was made to delete 6,018 votes,” he said.

    Congress leader Rahul Gandhi urges, “Gyanesh Kumar ji, do your job, and you have taken an oath. Give the details to the Karnataka CID.” Talking about the “Hydrogen bomb” of revelation, Mr. Gandhi says, “We will demonstrate the Hydrogen bomb.” “I told my team that I won’t go up that stage unless we have 100% proof,” says Mr. Gandhi. “We will take 2-3 months to complete these presentations, and you will have no doubt that in State after State, elections are being stolen in India,” he adds. 

    Rahul Gandhi gives deadline to CEC, demands release of data, Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha Rahul Gandhi says, “I want to tell the youth of India that they are defending the murderers of democracy.” 

    Rahul Gandhi says, “Our demand is that CEC Gyanesh Kumar has to release the details/data of these forms, OTPs within a week.” 

    This statement comes 40 days after Gandhi questioned the results of the Bengaluru Central Lok Sabha constituency. Previously, he had alleged over one lakh votes were stolen in Mahadevapura Assembly constituency and criticized the Election Commission for colluding with the BJP.

    During the closing ceremony of the ‘Voter Rights Yatra’ on September 1, Gandhi raised the same issue, stating that once evidence of “vote theft” is revealed, Prime Minister Narendra Modi would not be able to face the public. Last month, citing 2024 Lok Sabha election data, he claimed over one lakh votes were stolen in Mahadevapura, calling vote theft an “atom bomb on our democracy.”

  • Indian Government Orders Removal of 138 YouTube Videos, 83 Instagram Posts on Adani, Citing Delhi Court Gag Order

    New Delhi, September 18, 2025 – The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) has issued notices to journalists and media outlets, including Ravish Kumar, Ajit Anjum, Dhruv Rathee, Newslaundry, The Wire, HW News, and Aakash Banerjee’s The Deshbhakt, to remove 138 YouTube videos and 83 Instagram posts referencing the Adani Group. The directive, dated September 16, invokes an ex-parte interim injunction by the Rohini district court in a defamation suit filed by Adani Enterprises Limited (AEL), ordering the removal of allegedly defamatory content within five days.

    Scope of Takedown Notices

    The flagged content spans investigative reports, satirical pieces, and incidental mentions of Adani. Notable examples include:

    • Newslaundry: 42 YouTube videos, including episodes of TV Newsance on the Adani-NDTV takeover, Dharavi project reports, and podcasts like NL Hafta, NL Charcha, and NL Tippani. A subscription appeal video with an Adani screenshot and an interview with comedian Kunal Kamra joking about censorship were also targeted.
    • The Wire: Interviews by Sreenivasan Jain with NCP leaders Sharad and Ajit Pawar, confirming Gautam Adani hosted a 2019 meeting discussing potential NCP-BJP alignment.
    • Others: Three videos by Atul Chaurasia on U.S. cases against Adani, and content from The News Minute hosted on Newslaundry’s channel, including episodes of South Central and Let Me Explain.

    The MIB claims non-compliance with the court’s September 6 order, demanding action within 36 hours and notifying Meta Platforms Inc. and Google Inc. under the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.

    Court Order and Legal Context

    The gag order, issued by Senior Civil Judge Anuj Kumar Singh, stems from a defamation suit by AEL against journalists like Paranjoy Guha Thakurta and websites such as paranjoy.in, adaniwatch.org, and adanifiles.com.au. AEL, represented by senior advocate Jagdeep Sharma, alleged that repeated “baseless and malicious” reports, including references to the 2023 Hindenburg Research allegations of financial irregularities, damaged its brand, delayed projects, and eroded investor confidence. The court noted that unverified reports could “wipe off billions worth of investor’s money” and cause “loss of goodwill and reputation” globally.

    The ex-parte injunction, issued without hearing the defendants, restrains named journalists (Paranjoy Guha Thakurta, Ravi Nair, Abir Dasgupta, Ayaskant Das, Ayush Joshi, and others) from publishing defamatory material. However, it clarifies that “fair and accurate reporting based on substantiated and verified material” on investigations and court proceedings is protected.

    Reactions and Criticism

    The broad scope of the takedown order, targeting entities not named in the suit, has sparked outrage:

    • Paranjoy Guha Thakurta defended his reporting as “verified, factual, fair, balanced, unbiased, and in the public interest,” noting this as his seventh defamation case from Adani since 2017. He plans to challenge the order, expressing faith in India’s judiciary.
    • Indira Jaising, senior advocate, criticized the MIB’s involvement, stating, “The court knows how to implement its own orders; the Ministry is preempting the judicial process.” She questioned the government’s role in a civil suit, noting defendants have filed appeals.
    • Editors Guild of India expressed “deep concern” over the “John Doe” injunction’s chilling effect on free speech, urging due process.
    • Aakash Banerjee remarked on X, “A man who owns one of India’s biggest media conglomerates is discovering that news content creators… have one thing that money can’t buy.”
    • Ravish Kumar quipped on X that September 17 should be “Adani Video Takedown Day.”

    On September 17, the Delhi court declined an urgent hearing on appeals against the order, prolonging the legal battle.

  • Vaishali Rameshbabu Makes Chess History: Back-to-Back Champion at FIDE Women’s Grand Swiss 2025

    Samarkand, Uzbekistan, September 16, 2025 – Indian Grandmaster R. Vaishali Rameshbabu has cemented her legacy by winning the FIDE Women’s Grand Swiss 2025, becoming the first player—male or female—to claim the prestigious title consecutively. Securing 8 out of 11 points, Vaishali clinched victory with a hard-fought draw against former Women’s World Champion GM Tan Zhongyi of China in the final round, edging out Russia’s GM Kateryna Lagno on tiebreaks. The triumph earns her a spot in the 2026 FIDE Women’s Candidates Tournament, positioning her as a frontrunner to challenge for the world title.

    The 11-round Swiss-system tournament, held from September 5 to 15 in Samarkand, featured 103 of the world’s top female chess players vying for supremacy and qualification. As the defending champion from the 2023 Riga edition, Vaishali faced intense pressure but started strongly with three consecutive wins. A mid-tournament stumble, including a Round 8 loss to Kazakhstan’s GM Bibisara Assaubayeva, briefly jeopardled doubts. However, the 24-year-old from Chennai showcased resilience, defeating Ukraine’s GM Mariya Muzychuk in Round 10 to regain joint lead.

    In the crucial final round, Vaishali, playing Black, employed a Sicilian Defense to hold Tan Zhongyi to a 42-move draw. Lagno’s simultaneous draw against Azerbaijan’s GM Ulviyya Fataliyeva left both players at 8 points, but Vaishali’s better tiebreak—calculated by the average rating of opponents, excluding the lowest-rated—secured her the title. Assaubayeva claimed third place after drawing her final game.

    “This win means everything,” Vaishali said at the closing ceremony. “After a tough phase in Chennai with seven straight losses, I nearly withdrew. My brother Praggnanandhaa and family kept me going. With three Indian women—me, Divya Deshmukh, and Koneru Humpy—in the Candidates, 2026 is poised to be a landmark year for Indian chess.”

    Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated Vaishali on X, stating, “Her passion and dedication are exemplary. Best wishes for her future endeavours.” FIDE President Arkady Dvorkovich presented her with the winner’s trophy, with her brother Praggnanandhaa, a participant in the open section, by her side.

    Vaishali’s qualification strengthens an already formidable Women’s Candidates lineup, alongside Deshmukh and Humpy, following their all-Indian Women’s World Cup final in July. As India’s chess prowess surges, Vaishali’s back-to-back triumphs signal the rise of Indian women in the global arena.

  • AFMS Recruitment 2025: Golden Opportunity for MBBS & PG Holders to Join Indian Armed Forces as Medical Officers

    New Delhi, September 16, 2025: The Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS) has opened applications for 225 Medical Officer positions in the Indian Army, offering a prestigious career path for aspiring doctors. Eligible candidates with MBBS or postgraduate (PG) qualifications can apply online via the official website, with the last date set for October 3, 2025. This recruitment drive, starting from September 13, emphasizes service in the armed forces while providing competitive benefits and job security.

    The AFMS, a vital component of India’s defense healthcare system, is recruiting Short Service Commissioned (SSC) Medical Officers across various specialties. Out of the 225 vacancies, 169 are reserved for men and 56 for women, ensuring gender inclusivity. The basic pay is set at ₹61,300, along with allowances typical of armed forces service.

    Eligibility criteria are stringent to ensure high standards. Applicants must hold an MBBS degree registered under the National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019, with permanent registration from any State Medical Council/NMC/MCI. For PG holders, the degree must also be recognized. Crucially, candidates must have appeared for the NEET PG exam in 2024 or 2025; those who have already completed their postgraduate degree are not eligible. Age limits are 30 years for MBBS graduates and up to 35 years for PG holders, calculated as of the last date of application. Candidates who required more than two attempts to pass their final MBBS exams are ineligible.

    The selection process involves shortlisting based on NEET PG scores, followed by interviews commencing on November 11, 2025. Shortlisted candidates will undergo medical examinations and document verification.

    The application fee is ₹200, payable online via net banking, credit, or debit card. Applications must be submitted exclusively through the official portal at join.afms.gov.in.

    How to Apply for AFMS Medical Officer Recruitment 2025:

    • Visit the official website: www.join.afms.gov.in.
    • Click on “New Registration” and complete the one-time registration.
    • Fill in all personal, educational, and NEET PG details accurately.
    • Scan and upload the following documents:
      • Recent passport-size photograph (JPEG, up to 100 KB).
      • 10th certificate/birth certificate (PDF, up to 200 KB).
      • Final MBBS Part I and II attempt certificates.
      • Internship completion certificate.
      • NEET PG scorecard.
      • PG degree certificate (if applicable).
      • Aadhaar card.
    • Pay the ₹200 application fee online.
    • Review all details and click “Submit.”

    Prospective applicants are advised to carefully review the full eligibility norms on the website to avoid disqualification. This recruitment presents a unique chance to serve the nation while advancing a medical career in a dynamic environment.

  • Supreme Court Stays Key Provisions of Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025, No Blanket Interference

    New Delhi, September 15, 2025: The Supreme Court on Monday, September 15, 2025, pronounced its interim orders on pleas challenging the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, staying certain contentious provisions while declining to interfere with others, including the mandatory registration requirement. The bench, led by Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai and comprising Justice A.G. Masih, observed that legislation enjoys a “presumption of constitutionality” and stays are granted only in rare cases. The court reserved its final judgment on the Act’s validity, heard over three days in May 2025.

    The Act, notified on April 8, 2025, after Presidential assent on April 5, has been challenged by over 100 petitioners, including AIMIM MP Asaduddin Owaisi, Delhi AAP MLA Amanatullah Khan, Association for Protection of Civil Rights, Jamiat Ulema-i-Hind, and others, as a “creeping acquisition” of Muslim properties, violating Articles 14, 21, 25, and 26. The Centre, represented by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, defended it as a measure to curb “rampant encroachments” on public and private lands, ensuring better management without infringing religious rights.

    Key Interim Orders

    CJI Gavai, pronouncing the verdict, noted that while the entire Act was challenged, only specific provisions warranted interim protection:

    1. 5-Year Islamic Practice Condition (Section 3(1)(r)): Stayed until State Governments frame rules for determining if a person has practiced Islam for five years. The court acknowledged the provision’s intent to prevent misuse (e.g., conversions to evade debts) but found it arbitrary without a mechanism, risking “arbitrary exercise of power.”
    2. De-Notification of Waqf Lands (Sections 3C(2), 3C(3), 3C(4)): Stayed the provison allowing government officers (e.g., District Collectors) to de-recognize waqf properties during encroachment disputes. The court held this violates separation of powers, as executives cannot adjudicate property rights. Until title disputes are resolved by Waqf Tribunals or courts under Section 83, disputed properties remain unaffected, and no third-party rights can be created. Revenue records and Waqf Board entries will not be altered pending final adjudication.
    3. Non-Muslim Members in Waqf Bodies:
      • Central Waqf Council (Section 9): Limited to no more than four non-Muslims out of 20 members.
      • State Waqf Boards (Section 14): Limited to no more than three non-Muslims out of 11 members.
      • CEO of State Waqf Boards (Section 23): Not stayed, but the court directed that “as far as possible,” a Muslim should be appointed.

    Provisions Not Stayed

    The court declined to stay:

    • Mandatory Registration: Noted as a pre-existing requirement since 1923 (and 1995-2013), it does not infringe rights and ensures transparency.
    • Abolition of ‘Waqf-by-User’: For future waqfs, as it aligns with statutory recognition.
    • Bar on Waqfs Over Scheduled Areas/Protected Monuments: No prima facie arbitrariness.
    • Application of Limitation Act: To prevent stale claims.
    • Restrictions on Waqf Creation: Only by Muslims, and limits on women members (up to two).
    • Dilution of Waqf-alal-aulad (family waqfs) and appeals against Tribunal orders.

    The orders are interim and based on a prima facie view, not precluding final arguments on constitutionality. Petitioners like Samastha Kerala Jamiat Ulama, All India Muslim Personal Law Board, and DMK argued the Act enables executive overreach, invalidating historical waqfs (e.g., by user or court decree). The Centre countered that it promotes efficiency, women’s inheritance rights, and prevents mutawalli (manager) misuse, citing precedents that Article 26 does not confer absolute property rights.

    In April 2025, a bench led by then-CJI Sanjiv Khanna secured the Centre’s undertaking not to alter waqf status during pendency. Six BJP-ruled states (Assam, Rajasthan, etc.) intervened in support, while Kerala backed the challenge. The verdict balances regulatory reforms with protections against arbitrary executive actions.

  • Supreme Court to Pronounce Verdict on Stay of Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 on September 15

    New Delhi, September 13, 2025: The Supreme Court is scheduled to pronounce its judgment on Monday, September 15, 2025, on pleas seeking an interim stay on the implementation of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025. The bench, headed by Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai and comprising Justice Augustine George Masih, had reserved its verdict on May 22, 2025, after three days of back-to-back hearings in May. The order will be delivered at 10:30 AM in the matter titled ‘In Re: Waqf Amendment Act, 2025’, as per the Supreme Court’s causelist.

    The Act, notified on April 8, 2025, following Presidential assent on April 5, 2025, has been challenged by over 100 petitioners, including Muslim organizations and individuals, who describe it as a “creeping acquisition” of Muslim properties, violating fundamental rights under Articles 14, 21, 25, and 26 of the Constitution. Key contentious provisions include the abolition of “waqf by user” (long-standing religious use without formal registration), allowing non-Muslims in Waqf Boards, and empowering District Collectors to de-notify waqf properties declared as government land. Petitioners argue these changes deprive historical mosques, graveyards, and charitable properties of their status, especially those without deeds since 1923.

    The Union government, represented by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, defended the amendments as necessary to curb “rampant encroachment” on public and private properties, emphasizing that they regulate the secular management of waqf without interfering in religious practices. Mehta highlighted that mandatory registration has existed since 1923, and the Act ensures inheritance rights for women and children while preventing misuse by mutawallis (managers). He cited Supreme Court precedents that Article 26 does not confer absolute rights over religious property management. The Centre urged the court not to stay any provisions, noting the Act’s presumption of constitutionality.

    During hearings, CJI Gavai observed, “I have already said that there is a presumption of constitutionality,” and the bench identified three issues for interim orders: waqf by user, non-Muslim nominations, and government land identification as waqf. Kapil Sibal, for petitioners, warned of “irreparable injury” if provisions are activated, calling it a “systematic capture” via non-judicial processes.

    The Act, passed after 12-hour Lok Sabha and 14-hour Rajya Sabha debates on April 4, 2025, renames the 1995 Waqf Act as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development Act. Six BJP-ruled states have filed in support. The verdict could impact ongoing surveys and registrations under the new law.

  • Delhi High Court Evacuated After Bomb Threat

    New Delhi, September 12, 2025: The Delhi High Court witnessed chaotic scenes on Friday, September 12, 2025, as several benches abruptly adjourned hearings following a bomb threat.

    All judges stopped proceedings and vacated their courtrooms. A bomb disposal team van was deployed outside the court. According to sources, the court received a threatening letter claiming a bomb blast would occur in the afternoon inside the court building.

    Further details are awaited.